- Consider the utilitarian (Benthamite) social welfare function and the Rawlsian social welfare function.
- Which one is more consistent with a government that redistributes from the rich to the poor? Which is more consistent with a government that does not do any redistribution from the rich to the poor?
- Reconsider your answer to part (a). Show that either of the two social welfare functions can still be consistent with government redistribution from the rich to the poor. (Hint: think about the shape of the utility function).
